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Re: the USA charges
http://supremelaw.org/authors/mitchell/hoax.on.hoax.htm
Having asked the same question for more than 20 years now,
only one valid explanation remains to be inferred from the
stubborn and uninterrupted silence of so many “attorneys”
employed by the United States (federal government):They are too cowardly to admit the truth about the
real identity of “UNITED STATES OF AMERICA” [sic].And, they are sadly ignorant of a pivotal Federal law
which clearly distinguishes “United States”
from “United States of America”:https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/28/1746
http://supremelaw.org/sls/31answers.htm#Q16
Clearly, the terms “United States” and “United States of America” are both used in this same statute. They are not one and the same. The former refers to the federal government — in the U.S. Constitution and throughout most federal statutes. The latter refers to the 50 States that are united by, and under, the U.S. Constitution. 28 U.S.C. 1746 is the only federal statute in all of Title 28 of the United States Code that utilizes the term “United States of America”, as such.
BOTTOM LINE: UNITED STATES OF AMERICA (singular)
has no standing as such in any Court anywhere on planet Earth.https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/standing
http://supremelaw.org/cc/usa.inc/registered.agent.2007-02-12.gif
http://supremelaw.org/cc/usa.corp/registered.agent.2007-02-12.gif
